1. Who should define abnormality? What motivations, if any, might encourage various groups to seek influence on this definition? For example, why might a pharmaceutical company seek to influence the definition of abnormality? Why would clinical psychologists? Psychiatrists? Managed care companies? The government?

2. Do clients benefit from formal diagnoses? What aspects of assigning a DSM diagnosis may prove beneficial? What aspects may prove unfavorable? As a clinical psychologist, would you focus heavily on formal diagnoses? Why or why not? As a client, would you find a DSM diagnosis beneficial? Why or why not?

3. Does the DSM pathologize normal behavior? Consider premenstrual dysphoric disorder. In mainstream media, this disorder has often been described as “extreme PMS.” Consider minor depressive disorder. Does not everyone feel sad or down at some point during their life? Does this mean that such a person has a psychological disorder?

4. The DSM-5 proposes to eliminate bereavement from the exclusionary criteria for major depressive disorder. (Currently, an individual displaying the symptoms of major depressive disorder cannot be officially diagnosed if the symptoms are related to and present within six months of the death of a loved one or close acquaintance.) How do you feel about the removal of this exclusion? Should the natural process of grief following the death of a loved one be pathologized?

5. Look at the section that discusses changes the DSM-5 did not make. Are there any changes you think they should have made? Additionally, are there any changes they made that you think they should not have made?

6. Can you think of any reasons that the authors of the DSM might have chosen the controversial cutoffs that were discussed in the chapter?